NURS 6501: Final Exam:
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A 45-year-old woman with secondary amenorrhea is found to have elevated prolactin levels. Which of the following is the best explanation for the role of prolactin in causing amenorrhea?
Group of answer choices
- Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
- Prolactin decreases the production of progesterone
- Prolactin increases the release of FSH, leading to anovulation
- Prolactin stimulates excessive estrogen production
