NURS 6501: Final Exam: Please contact Assignment Samurai for help with NURS 6501: Final Exam or any other assignment. Email: assignmentsamurai@gmail.com   A patient presents with recurrent episodes of spontaneous bleeding into the joints and muscles. The patient has a known family history of a similar condition, primarily affecting male family members. Which inherited bleeding disorder is most consistent with this patient’s symptoms? Group of answer choices

• Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation
• Hemophilia A
• von Willebrand Disease

  The correct answer is: Hemophilia A   Explanation: The patient’s presentation—recurrent spontaneous bleeding into joints (hemarthrosis) and muscles, along with a family history affecting primarily males—is classic for:

• Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency), an X-linked recessive disorder (thus predominantly affects males).

Key Features of Hemophilia A:

• Prolonged aPTT (normal PT and platelet count).
• Severity correlates with Factor VIII levels:
  • Severe (<1% activity): Spontaneous bleeding.
  • Moderate (1-5%): Bleeding after minor trauma.
  • Mild (5-40%): Bleeding only after surgery/major injury.

Why Not the Others?

• Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP): Causes thrombocytopenia + microangiopathic hemolysis, not joint/muscle bleeding.
• Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC): Acquired condition with diffuse thrombosis/bleeding, not hereditary.
• von Willebrand Disease (vWD): Causes mucocutaneous bleeding (e.g., epistaxis, menorrhagia) but rarely hemarthrosis (unless severe Type 3).

Diagnostic Confirmation:

• Low Factor VIII activity with normal vWF levels.

Thus, Hemophilia A is the most likely diagnosis.